This explanation also seems a little strange, although way more merciful than cutting off a hand. Don’t know if it’s right, but take into consideration that this was a totally different time/culture/ language, and two Hebrew words were used for the word in question. Why not use the same Hebrew word for the hand that grabbed and for the (same) hand to be cut off? No where else in the Bible have I ever seen anything about deliberately mutilating someone, so this seems like a wrong translation. Also, I’m guessing men were doing the translating and perhaps that seemed like a justifiable punishment? Whatever the case, I’m neither a Bible scholar nor an expert on Hebrew culture, so my opinion doesn’t really count, lol. Just wanted to pass on a possible explanation.
Thank you for your explanation of Deuteronomy 25:11. I’ve read some others and yours is the one that makes most sense to me.
This email is for David…in regard to your explanation of Deuteronomy 25:11-12, I came across this article that might help.
https://www.puritanboard.com/threads/deut-25-11-12-woman-gets-hand-cut-off-for-grabbing-enemy-private-parts.97191/
This explanation also seems a little strange, although way more merciful than cutting off a hand. Don’t know if it’s right, but take into consideration that this was a totally different time/culture/ language, and two Hebrew words were used for the word in question. Why not use the same Hebrew word for the hand that grabbed and for the (same) hand to be cut off? No where else in the Bible have I ever seen anything about deliberately mutilating someone, so this seems like a wrong translation. Also, I’m guessing men were doing the translating and perhaps that seemed like a justifiable punishment? Whatever the case, I’m neither a Bible scholar nor an expert on Hebrew culture, so my opinion doesn’t really count, lol. Just wanted to pass on a possible explanation.
Have a great day,
Holly